Re: Does the NT authors use of "God sent his only son" imply...
Mike Phillips (mphilli3@mail.tds.net)
Thu, 1 Aug 1996 14:28:27 -0700
I'm not sure that issue is being discussed. Which is to say, I hope
you don't think anyone is arguing for or against Christ's pre-existence. The
posts (as I've read them) have to do with whether or not a specific verse
alludes (necessarily or grammatically) to said pre-existence. Yes, there are
other verses which do explicitly, but not this one, and the parallel
constructions suggest this one doesn't. Perhaps you misunderstood the course
of the posts, or I have misunderstood the intent of your post. Please tell me
how yours makes sense of the original (if it has to do with the Greek grammar
of the original poster's material) so I can be 'up to speed' with what you're
intending to say, because you lost me. If you were speaking to defend Christ's
pre-existence in general, than forgive my follow up for clarification and (if
you wish to clarify for my benefit) I welcome a private post, though we would
probably both unequivocably agree that there are texts which certainly state
explicitly that Christ (in some capacity) pre-existed.
Shalom,
> From: Craig Abernethy <baptist@mit.edu>, on 8/1/96 2:43 PM:
> A very clear statement of Christ's divine pre-existence is found in John
> 17:5, where Jesus prays:
>
> "Now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory which I had
> with you before the world began."
>
>
>
>
>
------
Mike Phillips
Hebrew Union College - JIR
A word is not a crystal, transparent and unchanging;
it is the skin of living thought and changes from day to day
as does the air around us. -- Oliver Wendell Holmes.