Luke 9:58 concludes:
O DE UIOS TOU ANQRWPOU OUK EXEI POU THN KEFALHN KLINHi
This POU THN KEFALHN KLINHi is the subject of my query: I would
expect it to be rather THN KEFALHN KLINAI, with an infinitive instead
of a subjunctive. Indeed, Modern Greek, where this has become a
proverbial phrase, uses the infinitive: DEN EXEI POU THN KEFALHN
KLINAI.
Not having studied NT Greek, I wonder whether this use of the
subjunctive is a particularity, whether there are more examples in
the NT -or perhaps it is a commonplace phenomenon and I should have
known better?
Thanks in advance,
Nikos Sarantakos
Luxembourg