> I like the homework example, and it raises another question about
> possible influence of Latin on Koine Greek and prompts me to ask a
> second time: does anybody know of any study of possible influence of
> Latin grammar on Greek?
Section 5 of BDR discusses latinisms in the NT. It mentions Latin expressions,
the adoption of Latin suffixes, and some "phraseological latinisms", e.g.:
Mt 12:14 SUMBOULION LAMBANEIN = consilium capere
19:10 AITIA = causa
Mk 14:65 RAPISMASIN AUTON ELABON = verberibus eum acceperunt
Lk 7:4 AXIOS ESTIN W PAREXH TOUTO = dignus est, cui hoc praebeas
etc.
There are lots of footnotes, with references to various articles on the subject,
including an article by Debrunner claiming that latinisms in Mark may point to a
Latin original. Should be interesting reading, at any rate!
But there is no indication that Latin may be responsible for NT Greek use of
aorist, etc.
Jonathan