>>Is this used differently in NT Greek?
>>
>>Jonathan
>
>NO. It's just that too many people who deal only with the grammar of the
>Greek NT seem to coin new, and often individualistic, grammatical
>terminology. If theyk would all adopt, as much as possible, the terminology
>of H. W. Smythe's Greek Grammar, there would be fewer problems in teaching
>and learning.
Do classical texts have less variation in terminology?
Jonathan