> .
> .
> .
> Now, as for a place which is not nicely written (from a grammatical
> perspective), and one which has been bothering me, is Mk16:6
>
> ...: IDE hO TOPOS hOPOU EQHKAN AUTON.
>
> We have IDE, singular, apparently spoken to three women (the
> imperative in v7 is plural). Why is TOPOS nominative instead of
> accusative as the direct object? I suppose that IDE could be use
> absolutely, with an implicit ESTIN for the rest of the fragment:
> "See, [it is] the place where they laid him." Nevertheless, this
> can't be a specimen of good Greek.
>
This seems to me a sign of someone using Greek as a second language.
It can be "good" in the sense that it is grammatically possible, but
definitely not natural.
==================================================
In His Service,
Shikai Ronnie Poon
Academic Dean, Alliance Bible Seminary
22 Peak Road, Cheung Chau, NT, Hong Kong
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http://www.hk.super.net/~skpoon
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