> However, I've recently come to think that Paul is here restating his
> conclusion (v.38 "he that gives his virginity in marriage does well,
> but he that does not give it in marriage will do better"). Paul has
> already condemned PORNEIA in Ch. 6:9-20. So, this 7:1 "touch" appears
> to me to be, not an immoral, but a proper touching in marriage. In
> other words, "It is well for a man not to touch a woman" = 'It is well
> not to get married, here's why ... [chapter 7].'
Wes,
I'd be interested in hearing how you came to this conclusion. I've never
heard it before (but there is a *lot* I haven't heard of).
Jonathan
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