Re: 1Cor 7:1 - Not to touch a woman....

Jeffrey Gibson (jgibson@acfsysv.roosevelt.edu)
Mon, 2 Dec 1996 21:21:09 -600 (CST)

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I have no immediate answer regarding how the word traslated "touch" was
used in Hellenistic Greek. But it seems to me that your reasoning
concerning the meaning of touch in 1 Cor 7 is off to a faulty start: it
is grounded in questionable assumption that what Paul is
talking about in 7:38 is giving up of one's own virginity. But the text,
as Derrett showed some time ago, is not dealing with questions of
celibacy or virginity, especially between an engaged or married couple, but
whether a father is treating
his daughter (his virgin) inappropriately by not allowing her to be
betrothed or to honour her betrothal contract. On what basis do you get
"virginity" from PARQENOS?

Jeffrey Gibson
jgibson@acfsysv.roosevelt.edu

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