I've come across a theory by Harold Riley, THE MAKING OF MARK: An
Exploration (Macon, Ga.: Mercer University Press, 1989) 215-18, that:
"When the word EUQUS corresponds to an equivalent word
in Matthew and/or Luke, it requires the sense of
'immediately.' When there is no corresponding word,
the more natural translation is in almost every instance
'then.' [Discussion of Mk6:25 27 counterexample omitted.]"
Naturally, Riley would like the reader to conclude that the
Griesbach Hypothesis is correct, but what I would like to know
is whether Riley correct on the data. If he is, then only
relatively few of Mark's EUQUS instances mean "immediately."
Is that what the article finds?
Stephen Carlson
-- Stephen C. Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations, scarlson@mindspring.com : and songs chant the words. http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/ : -- Shujing 2.35