"The pair of words in verse 3a, "received / delivered" (paralambanein /
paradidonai) is, as has often been pointed out, technical language for
the handing on of rabbinical tradition.17 [17 - See Joachim Jeremias,
The Eucharistic Words of Jesus (Oxford: Blackwell, 1955), 129.] That
Paul should have delivered the following tradition poses little problem;
but that he had first been the recipient of it from earlier tradents
creates, I judge, a problem insurmountable for Pauline authorship. Let
us not seek to avoid facing the force of the contradiction between the
notion of Paul's receiving the gospel he preached from earlier tradents
and the protestation in Gal. 1:1, 11-12 that "I did not receive it from
man." If the historical Paul is speaking in either passage, he is not
speaking in both."
My question is:
In 15:3 Paul writes PAREDWKA GAR hUMIN EN PRWTOIS hO KAI PARELABON, hOTI
CHRISTOS APEQANEN...
In 11:23 Paul writes EGW GAR PARELABON APO TOU KURIOU hO KAI PAREDWKA
UMIN, hOTI hO KURIOS...
Other than switching the order of the PAREDWKA and PARELABON phrases,
these seem to me to be pretty much the same formula. Why, then, does
Price assume that in 1 Corinthians 15:3 Paul is talking about receiving
his gospel from men when in 1 Corinthians 11:23 he says he received his
knowledge of the last supper from the Lord? Could not Paul have received
his 1 Cor 15:3 gospel also from the Lord, and he just omitted the APO
TOU KURIOU - and thus there would be no contradiction with Galatians? Am
I missing something here?
-- "Eric S. Weiss" http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm