Re: Two accents in one word??

Carlton Winbery (winberyc@alex1.linknet.net)
Tue, 7 Jan 1997 13:22:00 +0400

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Lou Schwing wrote;
>>Jim, the rule of accent is that if a word with an acute on the antepenult
>>(third from last syllable) or a circumflex on the penult (second from
>>last), it receives a second accent (acute) on the ultima (last syllable).
>
>But why isn't this usage universal? For example, Mark 1:8?
>
There is no word in Mark 1:8 that has an accent on the antepenult followed
by an enclitic.

Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
Fax (318) 442-4996
Phone (318) 487-7241

Next message: Edward Hobbs: "on MEIZWN, 1 Cor 12:31"
Previous message: Brian Rush: "Is there a transliteration standard for this list?"
Maybe in reply to: Jim Beale: "Two accents in one word??"
Next in thread: Carlton Winbery: "Re: Two accents in one word??"