1. To whom does the word translated <<Lord>> refer in each of these verses?
Can there be any other sound conclusion that both in the Mark and John verses
the word translated <<Lord>> refers both to Jesus and to the one we know in the
OT as God?
- both Mark and John quote the LXX Is 40.3, which itself translates the Hebrew.
The Greek verses use <<kuriou>> while the Hebrew uses the tetragrammaton, a word
variously represented in English - e.g. by <<the LORD>>, <<Yahweh>>,
<<Jehovah>>, <<the Name>>.
2. How does the answer to question 1 affect our choices in translating other
parts of John? For example does it affect our translation of the repeatedly
discussed John 8.58 expression? Should it? How might the grammatical
description be affected or qualified in this particular case?
- It has become common to call attention to context when analysing NT Greek,
both grammatically and semantically. How then should the context of an
expression within a coherent book affect our understanding of both the grammar
and the meaning of that expression? As this is too broad a question to consider
sensibly and constructively in an open email forum, I would be interested in
reading your responses in relation to the verses noted above.
Peter Burton
burto009@maroon.tc.umn.edu
MacLaurin Institute