> Date: Fri, 28 Feb 1997 19:48:03 -0500
> Subject: Re: John 15:4 MEINATE EN EMOI?
>
> Does the Bible ever say that one person is EN another person where the
> second person is not God, Jesus, or the Holy Spirit?
>
> I can think of one place:
>
> Matt 1:20 (GNT) tauta de autou enqumhqentos idou aggelos kuriou kat onar
> efanh autw legwn: Iwshf uios Dauid, mh fobhqhs paralabein Marian thn gunaika
> sou: to gar en auth gennhqen ek pneumatos estin agiou.
>
> But aside from pregnancy, are there other instances of this?
>
> Jonathan
How about Mark 1:23 where a man was "in an unclean spirit" (not vice
versa as we often expect). Also interesting is "eis" in 1 Cor. 10:2
where "all were baptized into Moses." (As representative of the Old
Covenant.)
Of course, one would not expect to find one person "in" another (aside
from pregnancy!) except in a metaphorical sense. (I agree with Paul
Bodin who earlier mentioned that "menw en" is a metaphorical use of
"en"--I don't go along with Deissmann who came up with the notion of the
"mystical en" in his book on Paul. It is just a locative metaphor,
perhaps of "sphere.") It is not useful to think of this as a separate
grammatical category for "en." (I say this as one slogging through
writing a brief NT syntax. The briefer the better!)
S. M. Baugh
Westminster Theological Seminary in Calif.
(P.S. I'm a new-comer only because I THOUGHT I was signed up to the
b-greek digest for the last 6 months and that it was just a quiet
group!! Sigh. I'm glad to finally find such talkative and knowledgeable
folk.)