>Roma 1:29 (GNT) peplhrwmenous pash adikia ponhria pleonexia kakia ...
>
>Is PEPLHRWMENOUS an accusative absolute? (Does NT Greek use accusative
>absolutes?) What are all those dative female adjectives doing after the
>accusative participle?
Not v. 28. PAREDWKEN AUTOUS, "he handed them over." PEPLHROUMENOUS and
MESTOUS both a accusatives in appostion to the AUTOUS, hence accusative
plural masculines--definitley not accusative absolutes!
The datives are not adjectives, but nouns injustice, evil, etc.
>Roma 1:29 (GNT) ... mestous fqonou fonou eridos dolou kakohqeias
>
>Again, I just don't get it. I can't read this! How is MESTOUS being used
>with the accusative here?
>
Again, MESTOUS of followed by genitives of content. "full of envy, murder
(nice rhetorical flourish), strife, deceit, bad moral character--and that
is followed by a series of adjective or nouns still in apposition to AUTOUS
in v. 28.
>Roma 1:30 (GNT) katalalous qeostugeis ubristas uperhfanous alazonas,
>efeuretas kakwn, goneusin apeiqeis,
>
>Why are these all accusative?
If I were your classroom teacher, Jonathon, I would respond to you by
asking whether you could find any other accusateive plural masculine nouns
or pronouns with which the terms you ask about could be in concord? Look
further than the immdediate context in the entire sentence.
Peac,
Edgar Krentz, New Testament
ekrentz@lstc.edu OR HOME: emkrentz@mcs.com
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 East 55th Street
CHICAGO IL 60615
TEL.: 773-256-0752 FAX: 773-256-0782