Some of my grammars (e.g. Robertson) say that these verbal
adjectives have primarily adjectival force, but also have
verbal force similar to that of a passive participle. Others,
especially Blass et al, feel that verbal adjectives have
completely lost their verbal force, and are used as straight
adjectives.
In examples like these, there does seem to be some verbal force:
John 6:45 (GNT) estin gegrammenon en tois profhtais: kai esontai
pantes *didaktoi* qeou: pas o akousas para tou patros kai maqwn
ercetai pros eme.
2Tim 3:16 (GNT) pasa grafh *qeopneustos* kai wfelimos pros didaskalian,
pros elegmon, pros epanorqwsin, pros paideian thn en dikaiosunh,
Matt 3:17 (GNT) kai idou fwnh ek twn ouranwn legousa: houtos estin
ho huios mou ho *agaphtos*, en hw eudokhsa.
And for trivia buffs, here's the one use of -TEOS:
Luke 5:38 (GNT) alla oinon neon eis askous kainous *blhteon*.
Luke 5:38 (NASU) "But new wine *must* *be* *put* into fresh wineskins.
The -TEOS implies "must be", so BLHTEON here means "must be put".
Do other people feel a passive verbal force in these examples,
similar to a passive participle?
Jonathan
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