Being self-taught in Biblical Hebrew and now Biblical Greek I know there
are serious gaps and flaws in my understanding of both languages and
subscribing to both lists has been invaluable in my learning which is
ongoing. That said, I would like to comment and ask a question about EGW
EIMI in Ex 3:14.
1. In Hebrew the 1st person personal pronoun {(NY/(NWKY = EGW in Greek}
is not there in Ex 3:14. In Hebrew, the pronoun with the verb is not
common but does occur (in fact such a construction is nearby in Ex 3:19
with YHWH as the speaker -- )NY YADA(TY = I know -- which is usually
rendered simply YADA(TY without the pronoun.
2. In my seriously unqualified opinion the Greek EGW EIMI hO WN of Ex.
3:14 is a "dynamic equivalent" rather than a literal translation of the
difficult/enigmatic Hebrew (EHYEH (A$ER (EHYEH.
Therefore my question is: If the LXX translators were to have chosen a
more literal rendering of (EYEH (A$ER (EYEH how would/could it have been
represented in Greek and would it be possible ("good Greek") to render
(EYEH (A$ER (EYEH without using the first person personal pronoun EGW?
Many Thanks,
Dexter Garnier