Imperfect participles, future participles...

Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Thu, 03 Apr 1997 21:11:18 -0500

There doesn't seem to be any such thing as an imperfect participle in the
GNT. Is there any such thing elsewhere in Greek literature?

Also, what is the force of the future participle in this verse:

Matt 27:49 (GNT) hOI DE LOIPOI ELEGON: AFES IDWMEN EI ERCETAI HLIAS *SWSWN*
AUTON.

Smyth says: "2044 The future participle marks an action as in prospect at
the time denoted by the leading verb." So does this mean that if Elijah
comes, he would come with saving Jesus in mind? "If Elijah comes, intending
to save him"?

Is that any different from hOI DE LOIPOI ELEGON: AFES IDWMEN EI ERCETAI
HLIAS SWSEI AUTON? Or what is the force of the future participle in the
following:

ACTS 8:27 (GNT) hOS ELHLUQEI *PROSKUNHSWN* EIS IEROUSALHM

Does this mean "he had come in order that he might worship"? - at the time
he came, he had worship as a prospect?

Jonathan

***************************************************************************
Jonathan Robie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703
Ph: 919.598.5728 Fax: 919.598.6728
email: jwrobie@mindspring.com, jonathan@poet.com
http://www.poet.com <--- shockwave enabled!
***************************************************************************