Infinitives as finite verbs
kdlitwak (kdlitwak@concentric.net)
Tue, 08 Apr 1997 23:02:56 -0700
This arises from non-biblical Greek, Eupolemos to be specfic, but has
applications to NT Greek perhaps. I've learned to translate the
infinitive in various ways, such as a pure infinitive "to see", or a
gerund "seeing" or with various prepositions as na articular
infinitive. THe text I'm working with, however, uses virtually no
finite verbs but only the infinitive. While I know an accusative can be
the subject of an infinitive, I can't think of any place in the NT where
the infinitive is used exclusively, with no finite verbs at all around.
Is this common in other non-biblical Greek? It also seems that the
subject of the infinitive is in the nominative several times. That's
not supposed tobe legal as far as I've been taught. Have I missed
something? Thanks.
Ken Litwak