>Greetings,
>I have been working my way through 1 John, and I ran into a roadblock on
>Chapter 2, verse 6:
>
>O LEGWN EN AUTW MENEIN OFEILEI KAQWS EKEINOS PERIEPATHSEN
>KAI AUTOS [OUTWS] PERIPATEIN.
>
>I am having trouble understanding how the infinitive MENEIN should be
>translated here. Several translations, such as the NASB translate it as a
>present indicative ("The one who says he abides in him, ought...."). My
>question, is simply, why?
>Also, according to Zerwick's Grammatical Analysis, the word OFEILEI normally
>means "owe", but with an infinitive means "ought". Is this the reason that
>verb MENW is an infinitive in this verse?
LEGW often takes an infinitive to express what is stated; I think that LEGW
+ infinitive is equivalent to LEGW hOTI. In this case,
hO LEGWN The one who says
EN AUTW MENEIN This is what he says: "I abide in him"
OFELEI...PERIPATEIN ought to...walk
At least, that's how I've been reading it. The infinitive associated with
OFEILEI is not MENEIN, but PERIPATEIN, to walk.
Hope this helps,
Jonathan
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