My question is, while either of the first two translations are
acceptable, most translators use some version of the former. But, as
EPIBARHSAI from v.9 contains the root BAREI from v.7, is the second
possibly to be preferred? It is hard to tell how transparent the
compound form may have been to Paul or his hearers. Does anyone have a
handle on how common these words were? If they were very common, then
this connection is probably a coincidence--if they are relatively rare,
then perhaps Paul chose these words with care. Does anyone have any
thoughts?
Bill Coe
Bethel Seminary West
San Diego