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1st John 1:1



I've been starting a study on 1st John.  

1.)	There are 4 relative pronouns "ho" in this verse.  The first one is
Nominative Neuter.  I am pretty sure of this because the linkiing verb
it corresponds to has the same personage.  The next three I am not sure
of.  The verbs they are used with use the 1st person plural form, while
"ho" is 3rd person singular.  In these three cases would the relative
pronoun be Nominative or Accusative, and why?

2.) 	At the end of 1st John 1:1 the phrase occurrs "peri tou logou ths
zwhs".  The "tou logou" is genitive with its corresponding preposition. 
Is the genitive phrase "ths zwhs" a Genitive Possessive or Genitive
Content?  Or are these not even in the ball park?  And what reasons
would be for the right answer?


Larry A. Hartman
Defense Language Institute Alumnus
Department of Arabic Studies


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