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I John 1, Periphrasis and Copulative EIMI

Folks:

`	I am still muddling through I John 1, but learning a significant
amount about Koine as I am going along.  Just out of curiosity I went
back to see if there were any periphrastic Perfect Participles in the
passage (I am at veres 7 now).  What I discovered was in verse 4 a
Perfect Participle was used with a Subjunctive of EIMI.  Can the
Subjunctive be used as a periphrasis?  Or is it just limited to the
Indicative?  I consulted my grammars on hand and couldnt find anything
one way or the other.  Anyone care to comment?

	While I am on the topic of EIMI, I read yesterday in AT Robertson that
the "common EIMI" is typically Aoristic.  He provides usage of such in
John 10:11.  This usage is copulative.  There are several times where
the Present and Imperfect EIMI is used in I John 1 which all appear to
be copulative.  Should I therefore take them as Aoristic, or are there
some further guidelines that I should know about? Anyone care to
comment?

	For the people who answered my previous query concerning the use of the
genitive TOU LOGOU THS ZWHS I thank you.  After looking at the various
options presented.  My original conclusion was "containing", after
looking into it further I believe that the apositive (adjectival) view
may be best here (living Word).  This may not entirely be void of some
bias. :)


Larry A. Hartman
Defense Language Institute Alumnus
Department of Arabic Studies