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Re: periphrastics

The Bearded One wrote;

>i was commending wineberry for the highly relevant citation of ectiv gegpammeva
>= gegpantai in jn 20,30-31.

Interesting that people either make Winbery Jewish = Weinberg or a fruit =
Winberry, but you have doen both. That's ok tho.

<omission>

>and i had intended to refer to other texts where periphrastics seem to have no
>difference in meaning from one word forms where those are available:
>
>what would you make of instances in the synoptics, for example, where luke has
>hv didackwv 4,31 while mark has edidacke 1,21? couldn't one glean several more
>of these from the synoptics? don't they at least tend toward 'no distinction'?
>
I need to run a few examples thru first, but my gut feeling is that there
is no difference in meaning for either, but the writer of Mark sees them as
interchangeable and that Luke prefers the periphrastic thus he eliminated
the imperfect.  For Luke it might give a slight emphasis to the process of
teaching but who can get into his mind.

Grace,


Carlton L. Winbery
114 Beall St.
Pineville, LA 71360
Fax (318) 442-4996
e-mail winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
        winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
        winbrow@aol.com
Phone 318 487-7241 Home 448-6103