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Mk 1:12 EKBALLEI / EKEBALLE
- To: b-greek@virginia.edu
- Subject: Mk 1:12 EKBALLEI / EKEBALLE
- From: Jonathan Robie <jwrobie@mindspring.com>
- Date: Fri, 06 Jun 1997 23:22:34 -0400
In context, EKBALLEI in Mark 1:12 refers to past time. How does the meaning
of the sentence change if I change the present-tense verb EKBALLEI to the
imperfect (EKEBALLE? I'm bad with morphology...)
Mk 1:12 Kai euqus to pneuma auton *ekballei* eis thn erhmon.
Mk 1:12 Kai euqus to pneuma auton *ekeballe* eis thn erhmon.
Is there a difference in meaning or in emphasis? If so, what is this
difference? I'm asking this to test a way of understanding the use of these
tenses...
Jonathan
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