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Re: Mark 4:3: a sower/the sower?

Eric van Halsema wrote:
> 
> In Mark 4:3 (parr) it says:
> 
> "EXHLQEN O SPEIRWN SPEIRAI"
> 
> Question: how can I be sure this has to be translated by "a sower went out to
> sow" (RSV). What about: "the sower went out to sow"?
> If the second possibility is incorrect I would like to know in which way I
> can put that into Greek.
> 

Literally, your proposal is correct.  I would think that the choice of
the RSV (as well as the NRSV, Amplified Bible, KJV, NAB, NIV, etc.) of
the indefinite English article rather than the definite is based more on
trying to express the genre more clearly in English idiom.
 
> Of course this has exegetical implications. If it is "a sower" we are dealing
> with a "Gleichnis" (Bultmann): something that can be repeated several times.
> If we translate "the sower", we are dealing with a parabel (Bultmann): a
> unique event occurring only once.

Bultmann is certainly giving viable options for the interpretation of
the Greek based on the presence or absence of the Greek definite
article.  However, in defense of the English translators, the used of
the English definite article is not normally used in the introduction to
a parable unless the parable is part of an anthology that has the same
characters over and over.  Since this parable is isolated, to translate
the introductory statement with the English definite article would lead
to the understanding that this is a real occurence and *not* a parable.

Good question, Erik.  Hope this explanation helps.

Paul