<< At 04:14 PM 7/11/97 -0400, DFJMDBDPUK@aol.com wrote:
>Matthew 24.16 "...flee to the mountains." Does anyone know of a variant
>reading where "mountains" is singular? Are there any editors or
commentators
>who would find advantage in either a singular reading or singular
>translation? Are their any versions or commentators who would concede the
>plural number but render it singular in sense? Are there any of you who
>would apply it in the singular? Thanx.
I have only the UBS 3rd edition, which lists no variant readings for the
verse. Someone with the Nestle-Aland could give more information. Why do you
ask?
Does anybody out there know enough geography to be able to describe exactly
what "flee to the mountains" would mean to someone in Judea? What difference
in meaning would there be between singular and plural?
Jonathan
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>>
In the 1550 Stephanus/1894 Scrivner, and the 1991 Byzantine Majority text the
reading is epi ta orh, which could probably be best understood accross the
mountains, suggesting the mountains which border Judaea on the north and
east, but the 1881 Wescott-Horte text reads eis ta orh, into the mountains,
which only can mean into the mountains, suggesting a dispersal and
hiding-out. I am not a greek scholar though, just a student, and so you may
discard my observations if they are not supported by other more advanced
minds.
In Christ, Joseph Garnier