Apostasia

BillCombs@aol.com
Tue, 15 Jul 1997 13:12:34 -0400 (EDT)

Liddell and Scott and TDNT suggest that APOSTASIA is a later construction for
another noun APOSTASIS. The reason I ask this is related to the argument
about APOSTASIA as the Rapture in 2 Thess 2:3. Those who argue this position
point to the fact that APOSTASIA did have the meaning of "spatial departure"
in classical Greek. For APOSTASIA itself LSJ lists only one reference for
"spatial departure," and this is from the 6th century A.D. Apparently, the
argument that APOSTASIA meant "spatial departure" in the classical period
comes from its association with APOSTASIS. Is APOSTASIA more than just a
different way to spell APOSTASIS--I assume so. The article in TDNT also says
APOSTASIA is a later construction for APOSTASIS, but in the discussion seems
to suggest that have a slightly different meaning. Is it legitimate to say
that the later APOSTASIA is fully equivalent to the earlier APOSTASIS?

Bill Combs
Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary