Hello Lemuel and I appreciate your research.
>
> But what one may find noteworthy is the use of the imperfect HN as
applied
> to the Person of the Logos. John used this verb in John 1:1 and 1 John
> 1:1. The imperfect has been discussed elsewhere (in grammar books, of
> course!). This is what one book says: "The imperfect denotes an
> incomplete action, one that is on its course, and is not yet brought to
its
> intended accomplishment. It implies that a certain thing was going on at
a
> specified time, but excludes the assertion that the end of the action was
> attained." To add further, "Since its essential force is identical with
> that of the present, it follows that its uses should be practically
> parallel." The use of HN is therefore consistent with the use of EIMI
in
> the statement of Christ in John 8:58: ...AMHN AMHN LEGW hUMIN, PRIN
ABRAAM
> GENESQAI EGW EIMI... The literal rendering would be: Amen, Amen, I say
to
> you, I am before Abraham became.
We have discussed temporal/aspectual nuances of EIMI to no end on b-greek
during the past year, and I think, in the end, the discussions have born
fruit since I believe I am finally understanding it thanks to the
contribution of various views. Here is the point: How long the imperfective
"action" implied by non-copulative EIMI (existence) comes from context.
Duration is inherent but the length of that duration is not. It can refer
to eternity but the context would indicate such (cf. Ps 89:2 LXX). But "The
mother of Jesus HN at the wedding" does not refer to eternity. As you
correctly stated, the end of the action is not specified but EIMI by itself
does not imply there is no end. So far this thread has been grappling with
the time bounds of HN and "EN ARCHi" in John 1:1 and its implications.
For the discussion of time bounds of John 8:58, you may wish to check the
archives last year.
Unfortunately, I missed the previous discussions of Plato and time. Would
someone please copy me on that thread since the archives do not contain
them? Thanks in advance. Are some saying that bible writers borrowed
Plato's view of time?
Sincerely,
Wes Williams