Re: Can adverbs modify multiple verbs in multiple clauses?

Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Wed, 30 Jul 1997 17:30:39 -0400

At 9:16 AM -0400 7/30/97, Clayton Bartholomew wrote:
>This is a syntax question. Can a single adverb in Attic or Koine
>Greek modify more than one verb in more than one clause? The
>text that raised this question is from Oedipus Rex line 364 (Oxford
>text):
>
>EIPW TI DHTA KALL, hIN ORGIZHi PLEON;
>
>Shall I say more to tempt your anger more? (David Grene).
>
>David Grene's translation started me thinking that PLEON was being
>applied to both ORGIZHi and EIPW. I don't find anything in my NT
>grammars or in Smyth or in Jebb, describing such a phenomena. I am
>currently assuming that this is really just a translation quirk and
>that PLEON only applies to the local verb. This question has been
>teasing me for a week or two.

I wouldn't rule out the possibility at all, but it is certainly unnecessary
to assume it in this instance, where we have both crasis (fusion of final +
initial vowels) and elision (omission of final vowel before an initial
vowel). Spelled out fully this would be:

EIPW TI DHTA K(AI) ALL(O), hIN(A) ORGIZHi PLEON?

Here I'd say that the first "more" in Grene's translation represents TI
ALLO in the first clause ("something else"), while "more" in the second
clause definitely does represent the Greek PLEON.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(704) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/