I really have no stance on this issue, and I shouldn't but--however
briefly--into a Norwegain spat; but, a couple of your statements evoked me.
Otto Nordgreen writes on 8/11/97:
> If James considered his rendering OK, why shouldn't we?
What sort of reasoning is this? "If it's good for General Motors, it's good
for the USA?"
> If the tetragram originally was in
> the NT, I find it somewhat amazing that it is not to be found in any single
> NT manuscript (...and there are about 5000 [!] of them...)!
Since the NT writings are a human collection of the religious writings of the
time. Why not consider the hundred-odd other "gospels" and the "Gnostic"
manuscripts as well? Any containing the tetragrammaton may have simply
been selected out (or burned) of the final anthology.
> If the pronunciation - and, indeed, the use -
> of the tetragram was that important, why has YHWH God allowed the tetragram
> to be removed completely from all the early NT mss?
This sort of logic can justify anything, e.g. "If this idea is so
non-sensical, why
does YHWH God allow it to be propagated over the Internet?"
(I feel much better now.)
Will Wagers taxis@gte.net "Reality is the best metaphor."