Re: Romans 12:15 -- anarthrous participles
Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Tue, 26 Aug 1997 09:47:11 -0400
At 08:35 AM 8/26/97 -0500, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>At 9:58 PM -0500 8/25/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>>In both English and German, the rest of the sentence that contains one of
>>these forms has rather weird syntax. In fact, the syntax can be weird enough
>>that people who write signs often can't quite get it right.
>>
>>I wonder if the remaining syntax for a sentence which uses an absolute
>>infinitive is equally unusual in Greek?
>
>I'm not sure exactly what's being suggested by this, Jonathan; is it that
>once the "normal" construction has been violated, anything goes? I don't
>really think that's what you mean, but if it is, I don't think that's the
>case. Again, see Smyth on infinitive for imperative in conditional
>sentences, #2326e.
No, what I meant is that there may be different rules following such a
usage. In English or German, there *are* clear rules in these contexts, but
they are different from the rules used in most sentences. I have no idea if
that is relevant in this case.
Jonathan
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