Does anyone think of any exceptions to this statement? (He excludes OIDA as
a present tense inflected as a perfect--I'm not persuaded by that
explanation, but let's leave OIDA out of the discussion for now.) Are there
any other verb forms in Greek that are not attested in the present
indicative?
Rod
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Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800
rdecker@bbc.edu Clarks Summit PA 18411
http://www.bbc.edu/courses/BBS/RDecker/Index.htm USA
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