Re: 1Thess. 4:14, what about dia?

John M. Sweigart (jsweiger@cswnet.com)
Tue, 07 Oct 1997 11:29:53 -0500

Jonathan Robie wrote:
>
> At 10:37 AM 10/7/97 -0500, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> >Jonathan Robie wrote:
> >>...but I still don't understand the interpretation "who have
> >>fallen asleep in Jesus"
>
> >I'm not sure what it is that you don't understand here, Jonathan.
>
> I may well be missing something obvious here, but I just don't understand
> how TOUS KOIMHQENTAS DIA TOU IHSOU can be interpreted as "those who have
> fallen asleep in Jesus". What would be the sense of DIA that can lead to
> that interpretation, which is used in these translations?
>
> KJV: For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also
> which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
>
> NIV: We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God
> will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in him.
>
> Jonathan
>
> ***************************************************************************
> Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie
> POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703 http://www.poet.com
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Jonathan;
The only sense that makes sense to me is a causal use of DIA. I want to
study more of Carl's comments about the placement of the phrase and the
use of the participle (the passive). I think the NT is pretty
consistent with the EN XRISTW formula. Also, considering the early
history of the church it seems conceivable that some believers could
have been martyred. I would suspect that this issue may have been the
cause of the teaching in 2 Thess about the Man of Sin and having the
church there getting confused about the Day of the Lord, etc.
-- 
__________________________________

Rev. John M. Sweigart Box 895 Dover, Arkansas 72837 Cumberland Presbyterian Church __________________________________