If this is the case, then what can be made of the following quote
from BDF 364(1)?
> > BDF states ". . . in the first
> >person singular . . . an invitation is extended to another to
> >permit the speaker to do something."
Carl wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>
. . . all of this may come down to a use of the subjunctive that is
kindred to the Homeric, where far more often than not, the
subjunctive is simply a declarative future.
>>>>>>>>>>>
Carl has touched on the unstated question hidden below the plain
text in my first post. Is the subjunctive in Acts 7:34b functioning as
a declaritive future? And there is second, more general question
that follows on this. What is the semantic relationship between the
subjunctive and the future indicative? Anyone wish to take this on?
I am all ears.
Clay Bartholomew
Three Tree Point