At 03:59 PM 10/27/97 -0500, Mary L B Pendergraft wrote:
>What I tell my students is that Greek frequently likes to use one finite
>verb and one or more participles where English prefers to use parallel
>finite verbs. So, while the participle isn't really an imperative, it
>would be more idiomatic in English to use one: "Go and teach." Similarly,
>in the preceding verse, it's more typical of English to say, "Jesus
>approached them and spoke to them...."
Looking at your reply and Carl's, both of you stop just short of saying that
the adverbial participle takes on the mood of the finite verb with which it
is associated, e.g. if the finite verb is in the imperative mood, the
participle is to be interpreted as an imperative; if the finite verb is in
the indicative mood, the participle is to be interpreted as indicative.
Would that rule be valid? Does it describe the way NT Greek participles
really work?
Jonathan
Jonathan Robie
jwrobie@mindspring.com
http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie