Do the pronominal adjectives TISIN (1 Timothy 1:3) and TINES (1:6), which
are listed in the Friberg Analytical Greek New Testament as masculine
plurals, include the possibility of feminine teachers being under
consideration, or are the masculine designations exclusive? Of course, I am
asking for grammatical possibilities here. What of the noun form for
"teachers of the law" (NOMODIDASKALOI), which is also given as masculine
plural? Does the masculine gender include the possibility of feminine
"teachers of the law," or does it exclude them?
If the masculine forms of the adjectives and noun above do not necessarily
exclude the feminine, how does one tell when only the masculine is intended?
Are there neuter forms for the pronominal adjectives which would make them
inclusive of both genders? If so, are these neuter forms always used when
the author desires to be inclusive of both genders? Additionally, while
this may sound like a foolish question (I do admit my ignorance of so much
of the Greek, but I am trying to learn), is there ever an example where the
masculine form is used where the masculine would not be included? The
reason I ask is that I heard a presentation by a "distinguished" professor
of Greek who stated that the "some" (King James) of 1 Timothy 1:3, 6 HAD TO
BE the "rebellious women" (the professor's words) Paul restricted in
2:11-12. Can such a claim be sustained, considering the pronominal
adjectives and noun above are masculine?
One final request. I would like to able to document these matters. Any
help you could give me in locating sources which address these questions
would be appreciated. I am not asking these questions in order to attack
the mentioned Greek professor (if he truly is one), I simply want to know
the grammatical truth of the matter.
Sincerely,
Ted Clarke
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