>. Since Luke and Hebrews are perhaps closest to Classical
>Greek in style, am wondering if this phenomenon (no repetition of the
>preposition in an EIS+verb construction) is not especially prevalent in
>Classical Greek. Or, another to put it, is the repetition of the
>preposition a later development in the Greek language?
>
No, it's my impression that it's fairly standard in classical prose and
less frequent in poetry.
Mary Pendergraft
Associate Professor of Classical Languages
Wake Forest University
Winston-Salem NC 27109 910-759-5331 pender@wfu.edu