>In Greek, how many is many, please?
>Does POLLOI in the opening sentence of Luke's gospel mean more than
>two?
>Or could it refer to two only - Mark and Matthew?
>Are there any instances in Greek of POLLOI meaning only two?
I think what we need to do in relation to Luke 1.1 is look at
conventions for writing prefaces of this nature. There is a good
recent volume on Luke's Preface by Loveday Alexander, c. 1993 [I do
not have a copy to hand].
H. J. Cadbury's *The Making of Luke-Acts* (New York: Macmillan, 1927;
London: SPCK, 1958) is, as always, a good resource on this question.
He considers that 'Luke's reference to many who had tried to compile
records must be taken with a grain of salt. The "many", after all,
may be but a convention of frontispiece rhetoric.' (p. 29).
It may be worth adding that Luke does use POLUS with a hint of
exaggeration elsewhere, perhaps especially Acts 24.10, also in an
introduction, here to Paul's defence before Felix who, he says, has
been judge over the nation EK POLLWN ETWN. Had he? I believe that
most chronologies would say that Felix had had at the most six years
at this stage.
Brian asks whether the POLLOI could be Mark and Matthew. The
difficulty with the POLLOI remains for pretty well all synoptic
theories - they suggest at most a handful of (written)
sources, Farrer (2), Two-Source Theory (2), Griesbach (1),
even Brian's own (2).
Good wishes
Mark
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Mark Goodacre Tel.: +44 (0)121 414 7512
Department of Theology Fax.: +44 (0)121 414 6866
University of Birmingham Email: M.S.Goodacre@bham.ac.uk
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