> Normally, when maing tax reports, Matthew would then
> > translate his notes into Greek and send them to Rome.
>
> Before this thread gets ruled out of bounds (no doubt rightly), might I
> ask for a clarification? Are you assuming Matthew was a Galilean tax
> collector? If so, why would he be sending notes to Rome rather than to
> the client-king of Galilee, for whom he was collecting taxes? Please
> reply off-list if Carl or Edward is lowering the boom :-).
To be more precise, not client-king but client-tetrarch.
Tom Kopecek