> >No, I personally favor the ASV and KJV renderings. In fact, it makes
> >good sense to see that the Thessalonian error was that they believed in
> >imminency, that is, the belief that the next prophetic event to be
> >fulfilled was the coming of the day of the Lord, which is started by the
> >coming of the Lord and our gathering together unto HIm (v. 1).
I always thought the big concern for the church at Thessolonica that Paul
addresses here is the fear that what if Christ has already returned,
and those who've already died flat out missed it?
The word ENESTWTA is used in Rom 8:38 and ICor 3:22 in contrast with
MELLONTA and seems to mean 'things already present' contrasted with
'things to come'.
> RH
> No problem as far as you go. However, why would the Thessalonians be alarmed
> or troubled over a prophecy that the Day of the Lord was imminent. If they
> anticipated a rapture, it would seem that they would be excited...I do not
> understand the cause for the agitation over the prospect of Christ soon
> returning to get them. Would you get upset if you were convinced that Christ
> was to return in a short time for you?
> Do you see the problem I am having here?
Actually, I *would* be shaken up to realize Christ was returning in a
short time. There are too many folks on my prayer list who don't yet know
the grace of God through Jesus Christ.
> The ending phrase in v 2 does not seem to fit there but seems to fit
> very well as the intro to v 3 (yet this apparently is not allowed by the
> Greek).
In my text (Aland, Black, Martini, Metzger & Wikgren, 1975), this passage
has a footnote about punctuation. They list 12 different editions of
the Greek and modern language translations which have major punctuation,
or a period, at the end of v 2, and only 3 which have either a dash or
comma. Nobody puts a period *before* the phrase hWS hOTI ENESTHKEN hH
hHMERA TOU KURIOU.
So, I think you're right, Roger. The text seems to demand that we
interpret this phrase as part of v 2.
God Bless,
Ginger (assistant to Holly)