I think that we *did* get an example from the literature, though the text
surrounding it was in Spanish:
At 06:53 PM 11/26/97 +0100, Daniel Riaħo wrote:
>Brian Wilson wrote:
>>If the official was a centurion, however, should we not also be
>>considering whether the phrase might be a Latinism? The Vulgate
>>rendering of EIPE LOGWi in both Mt 8:8 and Lk 7:7 is DIC VERBO.
>
> La expresi'on (en ablativo) es efectivamente latina, cf.:
> "quin tu uno verbo dic quid est quod me velis" Terenc."And." 45.
Can anybody who speaks Latin tell me what that is all about?
> My thought, when Jonathan first raised the
>possibility was that if the Roman centurion were speaking in Greek, which the
>comment (ascribed to Brian Wilson above but actualy from George Athas' post)
>affirms, the Latinism would be in the mind of the Centurion and his translation
>into Greek, not from his speaking in Latin.
>
>Jonathan, I'm not sure what I can see so I'll just call your denarius, but I'm
>in for the pot!
OK, I'll hold my breath and wait for one of the scholars to comment ;->
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com
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