Re: Simeon's spirit

Thomas Kopecek (kopecekt@central.edu)
Fri, 28 Nov 1997 12:02:33 +0000

I received a message that some mailbag or other was filled, so I'm not
sure this post was actually posted. I'll try again. My apologies if this
turns out to be a duplicate.

Rolf Furuli wrote:

> Dear Pete,
>
> I am not an expert on Luke, but I have some comments. F.L. Godet,
Repr.
> 1971 "Commentary on Luke" says: "The separation of PNEUMA from hAGION
by
> the verb HN in the greater part of the MSS. gives prominence to the
idea of
> the adjective. An influence rested upon him, and this influence was
holy."
> I.H. Marshall, 1978 "The Gospel of Luke" agrees about the emphatic
nature
> of the construction.
>
> Not only is the position of the verb interesting in your example but
also
> the lack of article. This evidently led Godet to speak of "an
influence"
> rather than "a person". Thomas.F. Middleton wrote in 1833 a monograph
on
> the Greek article ("The Doctrine of the Greek article Applied to the
> Criticism and Illustration of the Greek New Testament"). On p 126 he
> concluded that it is impossible that "God The Holy Spirit" is referred
to
> without the article being used, so PNEUMA hAGION "in cases without the
> article being not here the Person of the Holy Spirit, but his
influence or
> operation." Some of the examples with the article also signified the
same,
> according to him, because they were anaphoric.
>
> Some time ago I made a study on the use of the definite article with
PNEUMA
> hAGION. I found 36 instances of the words together with the article
and 44
> instances without. Looking at the articular occurrences I found that
most,
> or all of them CAN be anaphoric, thus upholding the indefinite nature
which
> PNEUMA hAGION have in the majority of the occurrences. In three NT
books
> Luke (1:15), Titus (3:5) and Hebrews (2:4) the first occurrence of the
> words neither is preceded by an article nor by a preposition; so all
the
> other references in these books may be anaphoric. In eleven books,
Matthew
> (1:18), Mark (1:8);John (1:33); Acts (1:2), Romans (5:5), 2
Corinthians
> (6:6), 1 Thessalonians (1:5), 2 Timothy (1:14), 1 Peter (1:12), 2
Peter
> (1:21) and Jude (1:20), the first occurrence is anarthrous but it is
> preceded by a preposition, which may or may not indicate definiteness.
In
> two books, 1 Corinthians (6:19) and Ephesians (1:13) the first
occurrence
> is articular. 1 Cor 6:19 may itself be anaphoric because PNEUMA is
> mentioned alone in 2:4 and TOU PNEUMATOS TOU QEOU is mentioned in
2:14. In
> Eph 1:13 the article may be required because of the complex
construction in
> which PNEUMA hAGION occur.
>
> In the book of Luke, 1:15,35,41,67; 2:25; 4:1; 11:13 are anarthrous
and
> without preposition, 3:16 is anarthrous with preposition and 2:26;
3:22 and
> 10:21 are articular.

Rolf: What was your conclusion regarding the Greek of Acts 2:33 within
its larger context in the first couple of chapters of Acts? If this is
the first sermon in the history of Christianity, then Peter's "trinity"
appears to be the one God, a man of Davidic descent who has been
resurrected by God "to be made both Lord And Messiah," and perhaps God's
force or Spirit which the resurrected Jesus "pours out" on the Jerusalem
church. If that is the case, then Luke means that "made" not be taken in
the sense of "made for the first time," as perhaps Paul, using the
second Psalm and the title Son, intended for Jesus' resurrection (cf.
the first few verses of Romans for a similar claim, taking over surely
from a source prior to Paul).

Tom
______
Thomas A. Kopecek
Religion and History
Central College
Pella, IA 50219
kopecekt@central.edu