Re: 1 John 3:9

Bill Ross (wross@farmerstel.com)
Sat, 9 May 1998 10:47:05 -0500

MIKE originally wrote
>> And he cannot sin ([kai ou dunatai amartanein]). This is a wrong
translation,
>> for this English naturally means "and he cannot commit sin" as if it were
[kai
>> ou dunatai amartein] or [amartˆsai] (second aorist or first aorist active
>> infinitive). The present active infinitive [amartanein] can only mean
"and he
>> cannot go on sinning," as is true of [amartanei] in verse 8 and [amartan
“n] in
>> verse 6.

GEORGE
>If OU DUNATAI hAMARTANEIN [is not able to be sinning] means "is unable
>to go on sinning", [I think you are accrurate in this] then the tense
>relationship of the infinitive form to the action itself of the
>infinitive verb must be foreward [future] in time, which is supported
>by the sense of ongoingness in the present infinitive, [for
>ongoingness 'ongoes' into the future]. In English, our infinitive
>form [to be, to do, etc] supports this idea with the 'to's ~ "To be,
>or not to be..." is clearly a pansive future use of our infinitive,
>for instance.

BILL
I think you are saying that the present tense must go on into the future...

GEORGE
>Now if we think about this musically, in English, our little 'to' acts
>like a little 'grace note' that introduces the arpeggio of the chord
>in the present, but the chord itself in the aorist, both of them
>following the 'to' and thus to the future of it.

BILL
and that what occurs in the present is the "setup" to it?

GEORGE
>My question then is, can we understand the Greek, which has no such
>separate auxilliary particle ['to'] in its infinitive, to have the
>same foreward thrust of meaning, as your example above would seem to
>indicate? And if yes, then is there some way that we can understand
>the Greek infinitive construction [of the infinitive word itself] so
>as to see this 'future' meaning? [And perhaps 'hear' its 'grace
>note'?]

BILL
If I understand your meaning then what I would respond would be:

* the present, in Greek, does not of necessity mean "on going into the
future" like an imperfect does. It *normally* does, but it *always*
indicates that the action involves the present time (according to Mounce);

* adding the words "go on" has an unfortunate implication that it happened
up to this point, which is not necessarily the case. If it did, it would
have the same problems as the trick question "Is it true that you are still
beating your wife"? If you say no, you are pretty much admitting that you
used to be!

* in order to not incur unwanted excess baggage, as in "habit of" and "go
on", I prefer "be", which implies of necessity only the the present, but
tends to imply ongoing action.

Of course, I could be all wet. Hence I am conversing with you guys :)