I have a question with which I need a bit of help.
Since the genitive and ablative cases share endings, how is one to
distinguish which is being used by a N.T.
writer? Is referring to the context the only
method? For
example, in Summer's Grammar, under the heading of the ablative, he
gives a sentence to illustrate what the ablative is, and that sentence is
as follows:
hO ANQRWPOS PEMPEI TOUS DOULOS TOU OIKOU = "the man sends the servants
from the house" (Summers
translation).
Why is this not genitive, i.e. "he sends the servants of the house"?
If the prepositions requiring a ablative interpretation (APO, EK, and
PARA) are not used, as in the above example, why does Summers render
this as ablative?
An individual communicating with me maintains that "gift of the Holy
Spirit" in Acts 2:38 is an epexegetical genitive, and makes no allowances
for any other interpretation. Why are the following alternatives not
possible:
(1) Subjective genitive
(2) Possessive genitive
(3) Ablative case ?
Thanks for your counsel.
Wayne Price
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