Awhile back, I did a translational try of these passages translating
AKOLOUQEI as a present indicative 2nd middle, and was parsimoniously
corrected to the imperative! I ate a huge serving of crow, and
accepted the correction, after re-looking at my Zodhiates parsing,
which I had misread, and went back to an imperative understanding.
Then, this morning, I looked up this word on the Perseus page, and I
come to find out that it is listed as BOTH. [plus 3 others in 3rd sg]
Now my reading of this passage takes very kindly to the indicative
mood, and what I would like to know is HOW the mood is determined in
this passage. Is the imperative grammatically mandated? Or is it
simply VERY generally understood as an imperative?
George Blaisdell