> (James 4:6 KJV) But he giveth more grace. Wherefore he saith, God
> resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble.
>
> To whom does the 'he' refer? If God, then why not, "I resisteth the
> proud..."
DIO LEGEI, hO QEOS hUPERHFANOIS ANTITASSETAI, TAPEINOIS DE DIDWSIN CARIN.
Dear Thomas and fellow B-Greekers,
Most English versions have '"it says" for LEGEI (WEB), or go one step further
and say something like "the Writings say" (BBE) or "the Scriptures say" (CEV).
I agree with them that LEGEI probably refers back to hH GRAFH in the previous
verse. However it could possibly refer to TO PNEUMA O KATWiKISEN EN hHMIN if
one assumes the latter to be the Holy Spirit rather than our own spirit, and
hence the author of hH GRAFH. In that case "he says" or "the Holy Spirit
says" might be legitimate translations.
I don't believe that hO QEOS is the subject of LEGEI in a grammatical sense,
even though moving the comma two steps to the right would make it appear
possible for God to be saying of himself "He resists the proud...." It seems
rather contrived; but then if one accepts divine authorship or inspiration of
the Scriptures, one has to accept that that is indeed what is happening in a
theological sense.
CARIS hUMIN KAI EIRHNH,
Mike Beazley,
Bushey, Hertfordshire, UK
CILIARCOS