(no subject)

Donald W Price (gman39@juno.com)
Sat, 30 May 1998 13:49:13 -0500

Hello B-Greekers:

I have another question regarding which I would like some advice.

In compound verbs, where either APO and EK are prefixed to the front of
the verb, is it true that all such verbs
still are used only with an ablative object? The reason I ask is that
in Acts 2:33, Luke records that :

"exeechen touto" = "he hath poured forth this..."

If APO and EK are used only with the ablative, why is TOUTO not
ablative?

Enlighten me, please!

Thanks.

Wayne

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