[SNIP]
> As far as I know, no research has yielded data suggesting that words
are
> stored in the mind as phrases or clauses, but the data suggest that
each
> word is stored in the mind of people with the same PP as a "concept"
which
> often has fuzzy edges. Because this concept is somewhat (but not
much)
> fluid, the same word used in different contexts illuminates or makes
> visible different parts of the concept. So "concept" used in lexical
> semantics has no meaning outside its PP, (therefore can we not use
English
> words to describe Greek concepts), it cannot be defined because it
is only
> apprehended by the minds of those sharing the same PP, and the only
way to
> express it is to say or write the word to which it is exclusively
connected.
Rolf,
I would like to offer a text for the purposes of literary case
analysis: John 11:3, 5.
In John 11:3, the Lord is said to FILEIS Lazarus. Conversely,
according to John, Jesus "loved" (HGAPA) Martha and Mary. Now what is
John telling us here? Are we to suppose that Jesus had a close
affectionate relationship with Lazarus, and not with Martha and Mary?
This could be one way of looking at the text. But could it also be
true that the words overlap in this context? Would the Greek mind
differentiate between the two words in this context?
Earle says that Jesus expressed "a higher kind of love" toward Mary
and Martha over against the love he had for Lazarus.
What do you think?
Edgar Foster
Classics Major
Lenoir-Rhyne College
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