> >
> > Mark 6:14 IWANNHS hO BAPTIZWN *EGHGERTAI* EK NEKRON
> > Mark 6:14 John the baptist *is* *risen* from the dead
> >
> > But what is wrong with "has risen from the dead"? If I understand Wallace
> > correctly, he seems to be implying that "has risen from the dead" would
> > focus on the belief that John the Baptist "had been resurrected", not on
> > the belief that he is alive.
>
> Tricky wording here in English, because 'has' is present tense, and is
> describing 'what' he 'is having' in the present, even though the whole
> of the verb form has 'past' [perfect] force in English. 'Is' and
> 'has' are both presents!! And the more I think about the English, the
> more interesting English gets! [And confusing, I might add]
And the more I think about this, the more I wonder about the
morphological implications of the Greek perfect. Does it indeed imply
'possession' through its form, as in the English 'has' risen, and is
it thereby really a present stative 'tense'? How DOES that morphology
work anyhows???
George Blaisdell