Lk 7:37 contains an interesting adjective, hamartwlos. This adjective
modifies gunh. Now, according to Moulton, this particular adjective can,
indeed, take a masculine (looking?) form. What is puzzling is why.
Brugmann thinks that a few adjectives were originally nouns. In any event,
Moulton goes on to say that this usage is in accord with the sole or
predominant usage in earlier Greek.
Does this mean that the adjective 'hamartwlos', originally referred only to
males, and that as time progressed it was also applied to females? This
seems to be the implication which Rengstorf offers in TDNT when he says that
the word "denotes intelectual inferiority and failure, e.g., by reason of
deficient education" (because only males were educated?). R. takes the word
in Lk 7:37 as a substantive. But this does still not explain the formation
of the case ending.
Thanks,
Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net
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