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1 Cor 11:10 "on account of the angels" usage by Paul

Well I am moving on to another topic which I wanted your
opinions on:

The phrase "on account of the angels" ("dia tous angelous")
in 1 Corinthians 11:10 has given rise to a host of different
interpretation and proposals of Paul view of angels.

As one author puts it, "(Paul's) last reason (on account of
the angels) causes a difficulty, because it is abruptly added
to a verse which is the conclusion of a theological reason
set forth in vv. 3-9.  As several commentation have remarked,
it is a surpirse to find it there.  Moreover, it is added without
any explanation, and all the attempts that have been made to
integrate it with the preceeding argument have not succeeded."
   - from "A Feature of Qumran Angelology and the
           Angels of I Cor XI. 10

The author goes on to propose their wild reconstruction of Paul's
view of angels, but I have a different suggestion which I am convinced
of, but have also never heard suggested.

First, it is worth to note that there are five passages in the New
Testament which present difficulties with the normal translation
"angel."  They are Acts 7:53, Galatians 3:19, Hebrews 2:2, Colossians 2:18,
and the passage here in 1 Corinthians 11:10.  The term angelos, I
would argue, can have the following range of meanings:

   1)  an ordinary human messager of anyone.

   2)  a human messenger sent by God

   3)  a super-human messager of God, i.e. an angel

   4)  a manifestation of God himself in some form or other
       (c.f. John 12:29; Acts 7:30, 35, 38; and Acts 8:26)
       each of these could refer to the voice of God.

   5) especially in the plural form, a message or instruction
      coming from God himself (perhaps it refers to the message
      of instruction which comes by way of the divine voice
      in usage number four.

Therefore, the women ought to have exousia on her head because
of these divine instructions (referring to the implications of
Genesis creation story which Paul has just finished highlighting

Probably the clearest example of this usage is Haggai 1:13, which
reads, "Then Haggai, the messenger of the Lord, spoke to the people
with the Lord's message."

The translators of the Septuagint translated the phrase "the Lord's
message" as "angelois kurou" or "the Lord's angels"

I think these type of examples solves the problems of Paul's usage of
angelos in 1 Cor 11:10, which resorting to complex angeologies.
What do others think?

Expecially helpful will be if anyone is convinced here in 1 Cor 11 this
is correct, and can shed light on it this would apply in some of the
other problem passges such as Acts 7:53, Galatians 3:19, Hebrews 2:2,
and Colossians 2:18.